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23 Comments - you say something?

• 19 January 2012 • 8:31 pm 1segundo
  

  First of all you have to read your oponent and try to guess what is his hand… than you aply the odds and compare to see who (you or him) has the most probability to win, thats why its important besides it is really hard and boring for someones.

• 19 January 2012 • 9:19 pm Pomonoli
  

  and why do we have to know this? lol.. and what are the chances of getting a four of a kind with a pocket, and what are the chances of getting royal flush with QK suited and what are the chances of getting a straight flush with 23 suited and what with A2 suited?? why don’t you tell us that?

• 19 January 2012 • 10:05 pm RussellsParadox
  

  @bigzacaq actually the ODDS are 649739 to 1.

• 19 January 2012 • 10:16 pm sienipata
  

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• 19 January 2012 • 10:44 pm DarkCloudedSoul
  

  Pardon my ignorance, as I am new to the sport of poker, but how does knowing this actually help you? Is it supposed to help you decide when to fold or bet to the river?

• 19 January 2012 • 11:38 pm MrLoouie86
  

  dont worry i got it lol

• 20 January 2012 • 12:06 am MrLoouie86
  

  why u multiply there by 3/51?

• 20 January 2012 • 12:58 am bigzacaq
  

  1 in 649740 hands

• 20 January 2012 • 1:10 am USERNAMEKLEMPTOR
  

  what are the odds od ROYAL FLUSH?

• 20 January 2012 • 1:35 am hyppEreL
  

  they say the chance of getting any pocket pair , not two 9`s.

• 20 January 2012 • 1:44 am lostcause31
  

  Because a physicist clearly trumps any other field that would utilize math.

• 20 January 2012 • 1:52 am vaico
  

  La probabilidad de sacar CUALQUIER PAR es la misma, no porque en la carta diga “A” en vez de “9” va a cambiar la probabilidad…

• 20 January 2012 • 2:35 am notengonickcojones
  

  what are u talking about? stupid, i’m physicist don’t try to teach me anything.

• 20 January 2012 • 2:58 am chadkwong
  

  ANY pocket pair is 5.8..

• 20 January 2012 • 3:00 am notengonickcojones
  

  the chance of getting two 9 is: 4/52 * 3/51 wich is approx: 0,5%.
  the chance of getting two pairs, no matter what pair, is: 3/51 wich is approx: 5.9% or 1 every 16 hands. don’t trust these videos if u want money, look for a course in mathematics.

• 20 January 2012 • 3:30 am jmb765
  

  Yeah, I see you’re right. It was just a quick reply at the time, I don’t guess I actually stopped to think about it. Thanks man.

• 20 January 2012 • 3:43 am SuperChuck3
  

  chance, can’t* sorry for the spelling

• 20 January 2012 • 4:16 am SuperChuck3
  

  The change of getting two 9’s is 1/221, lol, same as Aces. You can just double it to get your fraction right. The change of getting any pocket pair is 100% of getting any card (example a Jack), and then there’s 3 Jacks left for the 2nd card, and 51 cards left in the deck. 3/51 = 1/17 change of any Pocket pair.

• 20 January 2012 • 4:54 am SuperChuck3
  

  1/17 chance of getting pockets, 13 different pocket hands 17*13=221, 1/221 of getting 1 certain pocket pair (example A’s). But she said 1/222, so they obvioiusly rounded at once point when they put it to decimals, no biggie.

• 20 January 2012 • 5:36 am jmb765
  

  Well, she referred to pocket pairs first, which has a fairly good percentile, but when she went on to the pocket aces, she said something like 1/222 hands you’ll get it. She referred to it because it is the best possible pocket pair you can have, and because there are only 4 of those cards in the deck, the chances of you getting those SPECIFIC cards are that ratio. The first time she mentioned it, she was talking about pocket pairs in general.

• 20 January 2012 • 6:35 am djax4mvp
  

  no it wouldn’t, if nobody had what u were looking for than ur odds would increase. the odds stay the same.

• 20 January 2012 • 7:11 am djax4mvp
  

  yeah but their is only 3 nines if u already have one.

• 20 January 2012 • 7:28 am saintsrulethegay
  

  no it meant any pocket pair, not necaserily a pair of 9’s but they just used that as an example for a pocket pair

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